Say we have a random process $X(t, u)$ parametrized by $t$ and $u$ that generates data $x$. We also have a prior on $u$, $p(u)$.
Am I correct in stating that the expression to find the maximum a posteriori (MAP) estimate of only $t$ would be
$$ t_{MAP} = \underset{t}{\operatorname{argmax}} \int p(x | t, u) p(u) du = \underset{t}{\operatorname{argmax}} p(x|t) $$
That is, you'd marginalize the nuisance parameters out, correct?
Now suppose $U\sim \mathcal{N}[\hat{u}, C_u]$ and $X \mid u, t \sim \mathcal{N}[M(t) u, C_x]$.
Is it correct to say that $p(x | t)$ equals the pdf of $M(t) U$? That is, $$X \mid t \sim \mathcal{N}[M(t)\hat{u}, M(t)C_uM(t)^\top]$$
Stated differently and more generally, does deriving the distribution of $f(U, t)$ (where $f$ is a bijective function) give the same result as the $\int p(x|t, u)p(u)du$?